`Time and space are accordingly the pure forms of all sensible intuition'. Explain. Does Kant succeed in establishing this claim? Why?
Readings
(Kant, 1997, B33-B73) Note: Guyer/Wood edition gives both the versions of the first edition (pp. 155-171) and of the second (pp. 172-92). You should consult the first one for clarifications only.
(Walker, 1978, chs. II-IV)
(Bennett, 1966, §§1-10,19-20)
Further Readings
(Kant, 1997, B1-B30, B324-B349)
(Walker, 1978, chs. I, V)
(Bennett, 1966, §§16-18)